1. In the preface to the second edition of "Critique of Pure Reason" (page B xvi) Kant says: "Thus far it has been assumed that all our cognition must conform to objects. On that presupposition, however, all our attempts to establish something about them a priori, by means of concepts through which our cognition would be expanded, have come to nothing. Let us, therefore, try to find out by experiment whether we shall not make better progress in the problems of metaphysics if we assume that objects must conform to our cognition." How are we to understand this?
From
my understanding, Kant was debating that ways of acquiring new knowledge
can be better expanded if we try to make object conform to our reasoning rather
than conform our thoughts to the object.
New
knowledge will not be discovered if we assume things beforehand. Our cognition
that is conformed to object will lead nowhere. The better way to produce new
knowledge is to experiment whether object will conform to our cognition or not.
For
example, if Sir Isaac Newton conforms his thought
by assuming that the apple was falling down under the tree was because of the
wind blowing and did no experiment, we would not get a new knowledge called
‘Gravity’. In the text also mentioned that we should not be instructed by
nature or object. We should not approach nature like a pupil but like a judge.
Sir Isaac Newton went further with the experiment and discovered forces that
change in speed and direction of the apple and came up with theories of gravity.
That is how object conform to the cognition and produced new knowledge.
2. At the end of the discussion of the definition "Knowledge is perception", Socrates argues that we do not see and hear "with" the eyes and the ears, but "through" the eyes and the ears. How are we to understand this? And in what way is it correct to say that Socrates argument is directed towards what we in modern terms call "empiricism"?
Socrates does not believe that knowledge is perception. Eyes
and ears are just materials we use to get knowledge but they do not produce
knowledge.
If you see or hear things “with” your eyes and ears, each
person will see and hear differently based on their perception. One person
would hear a piece of music and say it is a good music, one might have said it
is bad.
Instead, we should see and hear “through” our eyes and
ears and take what we see and hear to the analysis.
For example, you cannot perceive that one person have
blond hair because their parents do. Instead, knowledge should be able to
explain with more theory and reasoning that this blond hair occurs due to the
human genetics aside from their own observing experiences.
This would support the argument towards the modern term
called ‘empiricism’ that knowledge doesn’t come from one’s experiences. Personal
experiences cannot become knowledge. They needs rational theory to prove that
it is not just one’s perception.
source:
THEAETETUS by Plato. (n.d.). Retrieved September 3, 2015, from http://www.gutenberg.org/files/1726/1726-h/1726-h.htm
Guyer, P. (2010). The Cambridge companion to Kant's Critique of pure reason. Cambridge: Cambridge University Press.
Rohlf, M. (2010, May 20). Immanuel Kant. Retrieved September 4, 2015.
Hi!
ReplyDeleteYou and I definitely had different takes on what Plato means with "we do not see and hear 'with' the eyes and the ears, but 'through' the eyes and the ears", how interesting! My take on this was that since our previous experiences and thought affect how we interpret things we see and hear there is no way to simply learn "with" our senses, we have to learn "through" them. Therefore knowledge though perception will always be subjective. This theme has really brought though differing opinions! I like reading how there people have thought about the concepts.
Keep up the good work and analysis for the coming weeks!